Valid CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam dumps

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates?
A. managing the increase connected devices
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability
C. providing device choice and support
D. enforcing company usage policies
Answer: D

A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution?
A. limit of a single device per user
B. restrict allowed devices types
C. allow multiple devices per user
D. minimize client configuration errors
Answer: B

Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC?
A. classic mobility
B. new mobility
C. converged access mobility
D. auto-anchor mobility
Answer: C

A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN?
A. PMF
B. peer-to-peer blocking
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management
D. split tunnel
Answer: A

Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.)
A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches.
B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary.
C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch.
D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch.
E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary.
F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary.
Answer: A,E,F

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports
E. Complete Inventory of all information assets
Answer: A, B, C, D

Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C, E

Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C, D

Which three statements are true regarding Security Group Tags? (Choose three.)
A. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as a separate authorization result.
B. When using the Cisco ISE solution, the Security Group Tag gets defined as part of a standard authorization profile.
C. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result using Cisco ACS 5.x.
D. Security Group Tags are a supported network authorization result for 802.1X, MAC Authentication Bypass, and WebAuth methods of authentication.
E. A Security Group Tag is a variable length string that is returned as an authorization result.
Answer: A, C, D

Which three statements about Cisco Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose three.)
A. The packet information used to create flows is not configurable by the user.
B. It supports IPv4 and IPv6 packet fields.
C. It tracks all fields of an IPv4 header as well as sections of the data payload.
D. It uses two types of flow cache, normal and permanent.
E. It can be a useful tool in monitoring the network for attacks.
Answer: B, C, E

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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement is true about Java byte code? 
A. It can run on any platform. 
B. It can run on any platform only if it was compiled for that platform. 
C. It can run on any platform that has the Java Runtime Environment. 
D. It can run on any platform that has a Java compiler. 
E. It can run on any platform only if that platform has both the Java Runtime Environment and a Java compiler. 
Answer: D

Which two statements are true? 
A. Error class is unextendable. 
B. Error class is extendable. 
C. Error is a RuntimeException. 
D. Error is an Exception. 
E. Error is a Throwable. 
Answer: B,C

Which statement will empty the contents of a StringBuilder variable named sb? 
A. sb. deleteAll (); 
B. sb. delete (0, sb. size () ); 
C. sb. delete (0, sb. length () ); 
D. sb. removeAll (); 
Answer: C

Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function 
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors 
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions 
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred 
E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created 
Answer: A,C,D

Which three statements are true about exception handling? 
A. Only unchecked exceptions can be rethrown. 
B. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class are recoverable. 
C. The parameter in a catch block is of Throwable type. 
D. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class must be caught or declared to be thrown. 
E. All subclasses of the Exception class except the RuntimeException class are checked exceptions. 
F. All subclasses of the Error class are checked exceptions and are recoverable. 
Answer: C,E,F

Which two class definitions fail to compile? 
A. abstract class A3 {private static int i;public void doStuff(){}public A3(){}} 
B. final class A1 {public A1(){}} 
C. public class A2 {private static int i;private A2(){}} 
D. class A4 {protected static final int i;private void doStuff(){}} 
E. final abstract class A5 {protected static int i;void doStuff(){}abstract void doIt();} 
Answer: C,E

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP? 
A. Static WEP 
B. CKIP 
C. WPA+WPA2 
D. 802 1x 
Answer: C

A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network? 
A. UNII-3 channels 
B. UNII-1 channels 
C. 802.11b channels 
D. 2.4 GHz channels 
E. UMII-2 channels 
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13 
Answer: E

When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? 
A. managing the increase connected devices 
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability 
C. providing device choice and support 
D. enforcing company usage policies 
Answer: D

A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution? 
A. limit of a single device per user 
B. restrict allowed devices types 
C. allow multiple devices per user 
D. minimize client configuration errors 
Answer: B

An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data? 
A. Client Summary 
B. Posture Status Count 
C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics 
D. Mobility Client Summary 
Answer: D

Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC? 
A. classic mobility 
B. new mobility 
C. converged access mobility 
D. auto-anchor mobility 
Answer: C

Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.) 
A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches. 
B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary. 
C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch. 
D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch. 
E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary. 
F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary. 
Answer: A,E,F

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination? 
A. transport 
B. network 
C. application 
D. presentation 
Answer: B

Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two) 
A. services layer 
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater 
C. access control 
D. QoS marking 
Answer: AC

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 
A. FD00::2 
B. 192.168.2.2 
C. FF05::2 
D. 226.10.10.10 
E. 240.1.0.1 
Answer: CE

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? 
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number 
B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number 
C. MDS-A# show host-id 
D. MDS-A# show license host-id 
Answer: D

Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? 
A. shielded twisted-pair cable 
B. coaxial cable 
C. multimode fiber-optic cable 
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable 
Answer: C

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card? 
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 5 
D. 6 
Answer: A

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) 
A. Virtual Port Channel 
B. Layer 3 
C. Virtual Device Contexts 
D. iSCSI 
E. Fibre Channel 
Answer: BC

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) 
A. Contacts icon 
B. phone icon 
C. person icon 
D. message icon 
E. web video conferencing icon 
Answer: A,B

What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network? 
A. FXS 
B. FXO 
C. E and M 
D. Serial 
Answer: B

Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) 
A. Bulk administration tool 
B. LDAP 
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL 
D. Outlook 
E. Presence 
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions 
Answer: A,B,C

A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.) 
A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role. 
B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp.
C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp.
D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role.
E. The user account has the Standard CAR role.
Answer: A,B

An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the "?" button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Answer: B

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of their Cisco cluster?
A. RTMT
B. Cisco AXL Toolkit
C. Cisco CTL Client
D. Cisco JTAPI
E. Cisco TAPS
Answer: A

On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be "TEI_ASSIGNED". What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway?
A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational.
B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway.
C. The T1 interfaces are down.
D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier.
Answer: C

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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-667 exam questions and answers below.
Which key metric drives a customer's disaster recovery strategy? 
A. ROI 
B. RTO 
C. TCA 
D. TCO 
Answer: B

Compared to other enterprise storage systems, which product has made the most changes to be energy efficient? 
A. V7000 with Unified 
B. XIV with 16Gb FICON 
C. V7000 with block only 
D. DS8870 with DC-UPS 
Answer: D

Which characteristic of a customer's server defines the storage device that could be attached? 
A. Form factor 
B. Clock speed 
C. Memory size 
D. Operating system 
Answer: D

What simplifies customer training requirements for storage management across multiple IBM enterprise offerings? 
A. Redbooks 
B. Storage GUIs 
C. DS Storage Manager 
D. Directed Maintenance Package 
Answer: B

A bank customer has two sites in Italy and France. One site uses IBM storage and the other uses a competitor. 
Which IBM solution is required for block storage when unifying the sites for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Control 
Answer: D

Which IBM product is applicable to a customer that has block storage sites in China, Japan, and Singapore, and needs to have them kept in sync for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize 
Answer: C

Which type of tape should an IBM sales specialist recommend to an enterprise customer? 
A. 3480 
B. DLT 
C. LTO 
D. SLC 
Answer: C

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Share some MCSA 70-765 exam questions and answers below.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have deployed several GS-series virtual machines (VMs) in Microsoft Azure. You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server in a development environment. Each VM has a dedicated disk for backups.You need to backup a database to the local disk on a VM. The backup must be replicated to another region. Which storage option should you use? 
A. Premium P10 disk storage 
B. Premium P20 diskstorage 
C. Premium P30 disk storage 
D. Standard locally redundant disk storage 
E. Standard geo-redundant disk storage 
F. Standard zone redundant blob storage 
G. Standard locally redundant blob storage 
H. Standard geo-redundant blob storage 
Answer: E

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals. Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines. You need to create the templates. 
Solution: You use Visual Studio to create a JSON template that defines the deployment and configuration settings for the SQL Server environment.Does the solution meet the goal? 
A. Yes 
B. No 
Answer: A 

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